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Therefore, if consummation had occurred through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), then what further need would there be for another Priest to rise up according to the order of Melchizedek, one who was not called according to the order of Aaron?
Si pues la perfección era por el sacerdocio Levítico (porque debajo de él recibió el pueblo la ley) ¿qué necesidad había aún de que se levantase otro sacerdote según el orden de Melchîsedec, y que no fuese llamado según el orden de Aarón?
If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
Now if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people have received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be called after the order of Aaron?